Q) A 50-year-old male with past history of MRSA presents to the emergency department 7 days after sigmoid colectomy with complaints of purulent drainage from his surgical incision
Temp is 102 F
Purulent drainage is easily expressed from the most inferior aspect of the incision.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
a) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture, and start on an empiric course of IV Vancomycin and Piperacillin-Tazobactam
b) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture and start on an empiric course of IV Vancomycin alone
c) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture, and hold off on starting antimicrobial therapy until culture data returns
d) Discharge home on a 7-day course of oral Cephalexin
High Yield Question on General Surgery from Bailey , Schwartz and Sabiston
Useful for NEET SS and INI
High Yield Question in Onco Surgery from Sabiston , Devitta and Anderson
Useful for INI
Q) 45 year old male with 24 hour old blunt colon injury is explored and found to have limited spillage of contents. There is no other intra abdominal injury. Haemodynamically stable. He has received three units of blood transfusion. Ideal management at surgery would be ?
a) Resection and Anastomosis
b) Resection anastomosis with loop ileostomy
c) Resection and Hartmanns
Sabiston page 422
Q) What is not seen in Distributive Shock?
a) High central venous pressure
b) High Cardiac output
c) High Base deficit
d) High Mixed Venous Saturation
Q) 40 year old lady was on anti thyroid medications which she stopped for 2 weeks. She presented in emergency with high grade fever and hypotension. ( Thyroid Storm) .What is not a part of further management?
b) Beta blockers
c) Radio active Iodine
d) Lugol's idodine