Q) A 73 year male, old heavy smoker presents with haemoptysis. On examination he is cachectic and shows evidence of clubbing. Imaging shows a main bronchial tumour with massive mediastinal lymphadenopathy together with widespread visceral metastases. Which of the following variant is likely in him?
( Theme from mock test 12- 24)
a) Adenocarcinoma
B. Small cell lung cancer
C. Large cell lung cancer
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Patient: 73-year-old male, heavy smoker
Symptoms: Hemoptysis, cachexia, clubbing
Imaging: Main bronchial tumor with massive mediastinal lymphadenopathy and widespread visceral metastases
Likely Variant:
B. Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is the most likely diagnosis.
Rationale:
Small Cell Lung Cancer: This type of cancer is strongly associated with heavy smoking and is characterized by aggressive behavior and early metastasis. Most patients present with disseminated disease, as seen in this case.
Clinical Features: The combination of hemoptysis, cachexia, and clubbing aligns well with SCLC, which can also lead to various paraneoplastic syndromes.
Other Tumors:
Adenocarcinoma: More common in never smokers and typically peripheral, not fitting the profile here.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma: Generally grows slower and is also typically centrally located, but not usually associated with such widespread metastasis at presentation.
Large Cell Lung Cancer: While it can be aggressive, it’s less commonly associated with extensive lymphadenopathy and visceral metastases compared to SCLC.
Q) 40 year old lady was on anti thyroid medications which she stopped for 2 weeks. She presented in emergency with high grade fever and hypotension. ( Thyroid Storm) .What is not a part of further management?
Explanation:
In the management of a thyroid storm, radioactive iodine (RAI) is not used. RAI is a predisposing factor for thyroid storm, not a treatment. The management includes beta blockers, oxygen and hemodynamic support, IV Lugol iodine, PTU (propylthiouracil), and corticosteroids.
Q) Patient with 2cm lung nodule , biopsy proven adenocarcinoma. CT shows hilar lymph node 1.5cm and left pleural effusion. Pleural fluid cytology is positive for malignant cells. What is the stage?
Q) Empyema stage II management is ? Theme from upcoming mock test 25 on 29.9.24
a) VATs
b) Decortication Open
c) IV antibiotics
d) Antibiotics and drainage
Ans d
Antibiotics and drainage
60 years ago, The American Thoracic Society first described the evolution of empyema as a continuous process that subdivides into three stages.
Exudative stage -
initial bacterial infection causes an acute inflammatory response between the pulmonary parenchyma and visceral pleural.
This exudative fluid is usually free-flowing, resolves with appropriate antibiotic treatment, and does not warrant any invasive drainage.
Fibrinopurulent and Loculated stage II) In the absence of appropriate treatment, the effusion can become complicated via deposition of fibrin clots and membranes resulting in isolated collections of fluid in the pleural space
.At this stage, bacteriology usually becomes positive, and the effusion warrants antimicrobials and drainage.
Chronic Organizational stage - if not drained, fibroblasts coalesce to form a thick pleural peel between the visceral and parietal pleura. This peel can ultimately encase the underlying lung parenchyma and can complicate the clinical course via inhibition of adequate gas exchange, trapped lung or chronic forms of empyema.
Q) Which of the following is false regarding amylase and lipase in acute pancreatitis?
a) Amylase more than 3 times above normal indicates acute pancreatitis
b) Normal serum amylase does not rule out acute pancreatitis
c) Serum lipase is more specific than serum amylase
d) Serum amylase is more sensitive than serum lipase