Q) A 50-year-old male with past history of MRSA presents to the emergency department 7 days after sigmoid colectomy with complaints of purulent drainage from his surgical incision
Temp is 102 F
Vitals stable
Purulent drainage is easily expressed from the most inferior aspect of the incision.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
a) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture, and start on an empiric course of IV Vancomycin and Piperacillin-Tazobactam
b) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture and start on an empiric course of IV Vancomycin alone
c) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture, and hold off on starting antimicrobial therapy until culture data returns
d) Discharge home on a 7-day course of oral Cephalexin