GI Surgery Mock Test -I

Welcome to the 1st Gi Surgery  test

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Duration is 1 hours

98 questions in total

60 GI Surgery and 38 general Surgery

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1. 1.Accentuation of breath and cardiac sounds through abdominal wall seen in ruptured abdominal viscus is termed as

 a) Claybrook sign

 B) Cruveilhier sign

 C) Chandelier sign

 D) Carnett sign

2. 2. Most frequent CT observation in Pseudomembranous colitis is

 A. Pancolic distribution

 B.) Mucosal enhancement

 C) Accordion sign

 D) Bowel wall>4 mm

3. Q )Indications for Surgery in Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage are all except

 A. Hemodynamic instability despite vigorous resuscitation (>3-unit transfusion)

 Failure of endoscopic techniques to arrest hemorrhage

 Recurrent bleed after initial stabilization ( two trials at obtaining endoscopic hemostasis)

 Continued slow bleeding with a transfusion requirement exceeding 3 units/day

4. Video Capsule Endoscopy, True is

 It permits visualization of the entire GI tract also offers interventional capability

 B. It is not contraindicated in patients with obstruction or a motility disorder.

 Reported success rate >99% in identifying small bowel disease.

 failed to identify a source of bleeding in 30% to 40% of both obscure-occult &overt cases

5. True regarding Bariatric surgery is

 After RYGB and LSG have increased ghrelin, which leads to decreased appetite after surgery

 B.C-reactive peptide, which are elevated before RYGB, are markedly reduced after RYGB,

 C. RYGB is a moderately restrictive, Moderately Malabsorptive procedure

 D) The volume of gastric pouch in RYGB is 45-50 mL

6. False statement regarding peritoneum / Peritoneal cavity is

 A.The surface area is 1.0 to 1.7 m2 of BSA

 B.It is subdivided into interconnected compartments by 6 ligaments and mesenteries which partition the abdomen into 8 potential spaces

 C.Normally, the peritoneal cavity contains less than 100 mL of sterile serous fluid.

 D.Visceral peritoneum is derived from the splanchnic blood vessels, whereas the parietal peritoneum is supplied by branches of the intercostal, subcostal,lumbar, and iliac vessels.

7. Low SAAG ascites seen in all except

 Pancreatic Ascites

 Biliary ascites

 Nephrotic syndrome

 Myxedema

8. True statement regarding Retroperitoneal abscess is

 Most common cause is renal disease

 Infections originating from the kidney are often Polymicrobial

 The most common symptoms of retroperitoneal abscesses are fever and chills

 Percutaneous drainage always indicated

9. Q) Indications for esophagectomy in an Achalasia cardia patient are all except

 megaesophagus

 Sigmoid esophagus

 Failure of more than 2 myotomy

 Reflux stricture that is not amenable to dilation

10. All are true among the following statement except

 Tension-free repairs have a lower rate of recurrence than tissue repairs

 Prosthetic mesh have a 50% to 75% lower risk of hernia recurrence, a lower risk groin pain, and an earlier return to work th

 TAPP procedures have more port site hernias and vascular injuries and TEP approach had a greater conversion rate.

 D. Primary inguinal hernias has twofold lower incidence of recurrence after laparoscopic repair (10%) than open repair (5%) whereas the recurrent hernias treated by laparoscopic approach have higher recurrences than open method (10% versus 14%).

11. All are true regarding caustic injuries of esophagus except

 Strictures predominantly affect Zargar’s grade 2 and 3 injuries

 Antibiotics or PPI iprevent strictures but steroids do not and may actually be harmful to the patient

 Savary dilators are safer than balloon dilatation

 The overall rate of perforation is 5% and 32% depending on operator expertise

12. True statement regarding esophagus surgery complications

 12% incidence of anastomotic leak after esophagectomy requires medical or surgical intervention

 Lerut classification is used for grading vocal cord injury post esophagectomy

 Thoracic anastomosess – leak rates of 2% to 26%, cervical anastomosis – leak rate of 0% to 9.3%

 Leak rates less with side-to-side stapled anastomosis than end-to-end circular stapled anastomosis, and handsewn

13. Q) Identify the false statement among the following in management practices  in Ca Esophagus

 Salvage esophagectomy after definitive chemoradiation is feasible. It provides additional survival benefit in patients with incomplete clinical response after definitive chemoradiation.

 The chemotherapeutic drugs used in CROSS trial was cisplatin and 5-FU

 Following CROSS trial, Western centers adopted the trimodality therapy as the standard of care for the treatment of esophageal carcinoma.

 MAGIC trial compared Chemotherapy and surgery Vs surgery alone

14. The final common pathway of acid secretion by parietal cells involves which of the following?

 Protein kinase

 Increased intracellular Ca2+

 Hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (H+,K+-ATPase)

 Phosphorylase kinase

15. Which of the following clinical conditions is not associated with delayed gastric emptying

 Hypocalcaemia

 Scleroderma

 Hyperglycemia

 Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

16. Regarding gastric volvulus, which of the following statements is true?

 Wandering spleen is most commonly associated condition

 Borchardt triad includes acute epigastric pain, nausea, and bilious vomiting.

 In Bouchardt triad there is initial block in cardia and then pylorus forming a close loop

 Bourchardt triad is not seen in children and only in 70% adults with acute gastric volvulus

17. During an operation for a bleeding duodenal ulcer, three-point “U” stitches are placed to ligate which of the following arteries after longitudinal pyloroduodenotomy

 A.Common hepatic, right gastric, and gastroduodenal arteries

 B.Proximal and distal gastroduodenal and transverse pancreatic arteries

 C Right gastric, gastroduodenal, and right gastroepiploic arteries

  D Right gastric and anterior and posterior inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries

18. Cryptidins are secreted by

 Goblet cells

 Paneth cells

 enterocytes

 enteroendocrine cells

19. All are absorbed by active transport in the proximal small bowel EXCEPT

 calcium

 Vitamin C

 Vitamin B6

 Vitamin B1

20. All are true statements about small bowel obstruction EXCEPt

 Adhesions second­ary to previous surgery -most common cause of small bowel obstruction

 Primary small bowel tumors are the most common cause for malignant small bowel obstruction

 CT is useful for diagnosing bowel strangulation

 Superconducting quantum interference device (SQUID) magnetometer is a noninvasive technique to detect mesenteric ischemia

21. All are used for treatment of long strictures in crohn’s disease EXCEPT

 Judd stricturoplasty

 Finney stricturoplasty

 Jaboulay stricturoplasty

 Michelassi stricturoplasty

22. Of the secretory products of carcinoid tumors which among the following is a tachykinin

 Histamine

 Kallikrein

 Neurotensin

 Chromogranin

23. Initial treatment of choice in small intestinal lymphoma

 Chemotherapy

 Radiotherapy

 Chemoradiotherapy

 Surgical resection

24. All the following are accepted radioprotective agents to prevent radiation enteritis EXCEPt

 Amifostine

 Sucralfate

 Pentoxifylline

 Glutamine

25. Q) Most common complication of jejunal diverticula

 a) Hemorrhage

 b) Perforation

 c) Obstruction

 d) Malabsorption

26. Q) True statements regarding laparoscopic splenectomy

 

 

 

 

 a) Anterior approach is currently the preferred approach

 b) In lateral approach umbilical port is commonly used for camera

 c) Lateral approach is used for giant spleen as gravity aids in dissection

 d) No advantages of robotic approach over laparoscopic splenectomy

27. Q) True regarding abscess of the spleen are all EXCEPT

 

 a) Majority of splenic abscess result from hematogenous spread from other sites

 b)Both Gram positive and gram negative organisms are responsible for abscess of spleen

 c) Splenomegaly is present in most of the patients.

 d) 2/3rd of the splenic abscess are solitary in adults

28. Q) All are true statements about appendix except

 

 

 

 

 a) Appendix has  “good” intestinal bacteria and may aid in maintenance of the normal colonic flora

 b) The first appendectomy was reported by a French Surgeon Claudius Amyand

 c) Mc Arthur’s incision is at Mc Burney’s point

 d) Appendicitis remains the second most common non-obstetric emergency in pregnancy 

29. Q) Appendicular carcinoids, false is

 

 

 

 

 a) Most common site is tip of the appendix

 b) Carcinoids smaller than 1 cm are cured with appendectomy.

 c) Patients with carcinoids larger than 2 cm, with involvement of the base should undergo right hemicolectomy with regional lymphadenectomy.

 d) Lymphovascular invasion is the best predictor of malignant behavior and metastatic potential than size of the carcinoid

30. Q) After emergency splenectomy following blunt abdominal trauma who is having an uneventful recovering in the ward. Which among the following vaccine is to be administered in the immediate postop period?

 

 

 

 

 A) Pneumococcal PPV 23 vaccine

 b) Haemophilus influenzae b vaccine

 c) Meningococcal C vaccine

 d) All vaccines to be given

31. Q ) Whitehead deformity is

 

 

 

 

 a) Prolapsed hemorrhoid

 b) Circumferential ectropion of anal canal after an improperly performed hemorrhoidectomy

 c) Multiple Fistula in ano

 d) Pilonidal sinus

32. Q) The marginal artery of Drummond is present and complete in what percentage of people?

 a) 3–5%

 b) 15–20%

 c) 50–65%

 d) 85–95%

33. Q) Which of the following is the primary energy source for colonocytes?

 a) glutamine

 B.short chain fatty acids

 c) glucose

 d) Medium chain triglycerides

34. Q) Haggitt classification for polyps, which of the following statements is not true?

 

 

 

 

 a)  level 0 polyp refers to noninvasive carcinoma in situ.

 b) All level IV polyps must be treated with segmental resection.

 c) Endoscopic excision is adequate treatment for level I and level II polyps.

 d) A wide-based sessile polyp with carcinoma at the tip of the polyp only is considered a level III polyp.

35. Q) All of the following statements regarding C. difficile are true except:

 

 

 

 

 a) Most common cause for nosocomial infectious diarrhoea

 b) Prior antibiotic therapy is the most significant risk factor

 c) Seen in the stools of 5% of normal population and 10-25% of hospitalized patients

 d) Bloody diarrhoea is the hallmark symptom

36. Q) All are true about pancreas anatomy except

 

 

 

 

 a) Lies in the retroperitoneum anterior to L1 vertebra

 b) Head lies anterior to vena cava at the confluence of the renal veins

 c) Neck overlies the SMA

 d) Tail lies anterior to Gerota’s fascia terminating within the splenic hilum in 30%

37. Q) True regarding Pancreas divisum

 

 

 

 a) Failure of formation of dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds

 b) Dorsal pancreatic duct enters through the major papilla

 c) Affects 10% of the population

 d) Pancreatitis is common in affected individuals

38. Q) The most common CT finding in chronic pancreatitis is:

 

 

 

 

 a) Dilated pancreatic duct

 b) Parenchymal atrophy

 c) Pancreatic calcifications

 d) Focal pancreatic enlargement

39. Q) False regarding Pancreatic solid pseudopapillary tumor

 

 

 

 

 a) Also called as Frantz tumor or Hamoudi tumor

 b) Seen in Tail 36% and head 34%

 c) Often large and often with symptoms

 d) It is Non encapsulated lesion

40. Q) Following is unresectable in CA  pancreas  as per NCCN criteria

 

 

 

 

 a) Solid tumor contact with the SMA of ≤180 degree

 b) Solid tumor contacts with the CHA without extension to CA or bifurcation ofthe hepatic artery to allow safe and complete resection and reconstruction

 c) Presence of variant arterial anatomy (ex: accessory right hepatic artery,replaced right hepatic artery, replaced CHA and the origin of replaced oraccessory artery)

 d) Solid tumor contacts with first jejunal SMA branch

41. Q) Most common primary to metastasize to pancreas which is most amenable for surgical resection

 a) Colorectal

 b) Melanoma

 c) Lung

 d) Renal

42. Q) Post ERCP pancreatitis, True is

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 a) Defined as abdominal pain and associated pancreatic enzyme elevation, at least three times the upper normal limit within 48 hours after the procedure and resulting hospitalization of 3 nights or more

 b) Occurs in 1% to 3% of patients undergoing therapeutic ERCP

 c) Males have higher risk

 d) IPMN has higher risk

43. Q) False regarding PSC associated IBD & Colorectal cancer

 

 

 

 a) The presence of IBD (irrespective of severity) has been associatedwith greater PSC-related morbidity and mortality

 b) PSC-IBD have pancolitis, rectal sparing, Backwash ileitis and greater risk of pouchitis postcolectomy

 c) Severe colitis in PSC-IBD than isolated IBD

 d) 5 times increased risk of Colorectal cancer in these patients

44. Q) Type IIIA biliary injury True is

 

 

 

 

 a) Floor of confluence scarred

 b) Roof of confluence is scarred

 c) Floor of confluence healthy

 d) Both roof and floor are scarred

45. Q) False among the following regarding Choledochal cyst

 

 

 

 a) Type Ia- GB arises from CDC and EH biliary tract dilated

 b) Type Id- Dilation of cystic duct, CBD and CHD

 c) Type III- Intraduodenal diverticulum

 d) Type VI- Isolated dilation of CHD without involvement of Cystic duct and CBD

46. Q) Patient underwent a straight forward laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, diagnosed to have incidental Carcinoma Gallbladder HPE reported as tumor involving muscle layer with CECT showing a large necrotic interaortocaval node. Next step

 A. No surgery

 B. Extended cholecystectomy with lymphadenectomy

 C. Major Hepatectomy

 D. Palliative therapy

47. Q) First physician to describe the essential anatomy of the blood vessels of the liver

 A. Francis Glisson

 B. Berta

 C. Hogarth Pringle

 D. Lortat-Jacob

48. Q False statement among the following

 A. Left hemihepatectomy involves resection of segments II-IV

 B. Right trisectionectomy is same as Right lobectomy and involves resection of IV-VIII

 C. Left trisectionectomy is same as left lobectomy, involves resection of II, III, IV, V, VIII

 D. Patients with Child class B or C cirrhosisor portal hypertension do not tolerate liver resections

49. Q_ A liver cirrhosis patient with CTP-A with morbid obesity needs bariatric surgery. Which among the following is the procedure of choice?

 RYGB

 Lap sleeve Gastrectomy

 Biliopancreatic diversion

 Mini gastric bypass

50. Q) False statement about liver adenoma  is

 Multiple adenomas are not associated with OCP use and do not have as dramatic a female preponderance.

 Highest risk of malignant transformation is observedin Liver Cell Adenoma with β-catenin activation

 >5cm lesion has >30-50% chance of rupture and bleeding

 In patients with adenomatosis, the risk of complications is higher than in patients with a solitary HCA

51. Q) True statement about hydatid liver  is

 The cyst wall itself has two layers, an outer gelatinous membrane (ectocyst) and an inner germinal membrane (endocyst).

 Calcified cyst is always a dead cyst

 World Health Organization Classifications of Hydatid Cysts is based on CECT findings

 Hydatid sand is a CL lesion

52. Q) Initial primary survey of the chest commonly identifies the following causes of cardio respiratory compromise, except:

 

 

 

 

 a) Flail chest

 b) Cardiac tamponade

 c) Tension pneumothorax

 d) Pulmonary contusion

53. Q) Which of the following is not an independent indication for laparotomy following trauma?

 

 

 

 

 a) Evisceration of omentum

 b) Stab wound to anterior abdomen

 c) Gunshot to abdomen

 d) Blunt abdominal trauma with free intraperitoneal air on erect chestradiograph

54. Q) A 47-year-old perimenopausal woman presents with a 3-week history of green discharge from the right nipple. On examination, the right nipple is non-tender, has a ‘slit-like’ appearance and is retracted. The most likely diagnosis is:

 Galactorrhoea

 Breast carcinoma

 Mammary duct ectasia

 Periductal mastitis

55. Q) an elderly patient in clinic has a positive Buerger’s test. From the list of options below, select the most likely reason for a positive Buerger’s test.

 Venous insufficiency of the upper limbs

 Arterial insufficiency of the lower limbs

 Venous insufficiency of the lower limbs

 Arterial insufficiency of the upper limbs

56. Q) The renal arteries arise at intervertebral level:

 

 

 

 

 a) T11/T12

 b) T12/L1

 c) L1/L2

 d) L2/L3

57. Q) Which of the following vessels contributes to the blood supply of the prostate gland?

 Superior mesenteric artery

 Inferior mesenteric artery

 Internal iliac artery

 External iliac artery

58. Q) All of the following statements regarding Peyronie’s disease are true, except:

 

 a) Presents with Penile deformity, palpable penile plaques within the penis, Erectile Dysfunction and pain on erection.

 b) Medical treatments during the active phase have little evidence of efficacy

 c) Surgical treatment will lengthen the erect penile length

 d) There is an association with Dupuytren’s contracture

59. Q) All of the following statements regarding carcinoma of the penis are true, except:

 

 

 

 a) It is a squamous cell carcinoma

 b) Incidence is lower in men infected with the human papilloma virus

 c) Incidence is lower in men circumcised at birth

 d) 5-year survival in patients with localized disease is around 80 per cent

60. Q) A patient with blunt trauma abdomen has hematoma in zone 3 secondary to pelvic fracture bleeding, with a fall in Hemoglobin and persisting tachycardia. Next step is

 

 a) Blood transfusion

 b) Explore

 c) Serial HB monitoring

 None

61. Q) A 70 year old male with severe sudden onset central abdominal pain, malena, tachycardia. His blood pressure is 132/94 mmHg and temperature is 38.1°C. Abdominal examination reveals soft but distended and tender abdomen with no audible bowel sounds. Most likely diagnosis?

 Ruptured Abdominal aortic aneurysm

 
Acute pancreatitis

 Mesenteric ischemia

 MI

62. Q) All are indications for urgent thoracotomy except?

 

 

 

 a) Cardiac tamponade

 b) Chest drainage of 300 mL blood in the first hour and 250 mL/h in the next few hours

 c) Flail chest with evidence of haemothorax

 d) Immediate chest drainage of >1500 mL of blood

63. Q) Indication for blood transfusion in patients who are not actively bleeding, not about to undergo major surgery and are not symptomatic is

 HB <6

 HB<7

 HB <8

 Hb <10

64. Q) Which of the following pathogens are not eradicated by alcohol-based hand gels?

 A. Clostridium difficile

 B. Escherichia coli

 C. Extended spectrum β-lactamase

 D. Klebsiella species

65. Q) Which of the following statement is not true regarding day case surgery?

 a) Diabetic patients can easily be managed on a day case list

 b) Obese patients (BMI > 30) should be always excluded from day case lists

 c) Patients must have a responsible carer accompanying them for 24–48 hours postoperatively

 d) The procedure should have a low incidence of postoperative complications

66. Q) Which of the following acronyms are not associated with publications in surgery?

 

 a) CONSORT

 b) PRISMA

 c) IMRAD

 d) TNM

67. Q) Which of the following statements are true except?

 

 

 a) Mode is the value with the highest frequency observed

 b) Unpaired t test is used to compare two groups, which are numerical and normally distributed.

 c) confidence interval that includes zero usually implies lack of statistical significance.

 d) A p-value of <0.5 is commonly taken to imply true difference.

68.

1. Which of the following statements is false?

 A. Conventional x-ray will delineate different soft tissue reliably.

 B. Conventional x-rays can be manipulated.

 C. Dedicated transducers can help in endocavitary ultrasound (US).

 D. The higher the frequency of the US wave, the greater the resolution of the image.

69. Q) Composition of University of Wisconsin (UW) solution are all except

 Potassium lactobionate

 Sodium chloride

 Magnesium sulphate

 Adenosine

70. Q) False statement among the following is

 

 

 

 a) The risk of sudden death is less with the newer contrast agent

 b) The latest RCR recommendations regarding the use of contrast in patients taking metformin is that, it can be continued in patients with normal renal function.

 c) Doing 1 CECT abdomen = 500 chest radiographs

 
d) Use of low osmolality contrast media (LOCM) or iso-osmolar media is recommended for patients with increased risk of allergic reaction

71. Q) which among the following procedure is prone for maximum bacteremia in an immunocompetent individual

 

 

 

 

 a) Tooth brushing

 b) ERCP (duct occluded)

 c) Oesophageal dilatation/prosthesis

 d) Colonoscopy

72. Q) Triangulation technique of vascular anastomosis given by

 

 

 

 a) Alexis Carrel

 b) Joseph Murray

 
c) Thomas Starzl

 d) Lillehei

73. Q) Safe anastomosis [low risk for leakage] among the following is

 

 

 

 

 a) Esophageal anastomosis

 b) Pancreatic enteric

 c) Colorectal anastomosis

 d) Ileorectal anastomosis

74. Q) All the following are unfavourable fistula to heal except

 

 

 

 

 a) Pancreaticobiliary

 b) lateral duodenum

 c) stomach

 d) ileum

75. Q) Thunder beat S™ false is

 

 

 

 

 a) It can seal and divide arteries and veins up to 10 mm in diameter

 b) It can act as a bipolar diathermy

 c) It can act as a Harmonic

 d) Both B & C

76. Q) Sucking chest wound’ False is

 

 

 

 

 a) Also called as open pneumothorax

 b) Size >5cm

 c) Opsite® to close the wound is the initial management

 d) A chest tube is inserted as soon as possible in a site remote from the injury site.

77. Q) False among the following regarding day care surgery

 

 

 

 a) Outpatient surgery: not admitted to a ward facility

 b) Procedure room surgery: surgery not requiring full sterile theatre facilities

 c) Day surgery: admitted and discharged within the 24-hour day

 
d) Short-stay surgery: admission of up to 72 hours

78. Q) Quantity of calcium in Hartman’s solution?

 a) 2 mmol/l

 b) 5 mmol/l

 c) 8 mmol/l

 d) 11 mmol/l

79. Q) Frozen section all are disadvantages except

 

 a) Labor intensive

 b) Risk of infection

 c) Small sample required

 d) None

80. Q) Drains put in to cover perioperative bleeding like in thyroidectomy patients may usually be removed after

 a) 24 hrs

 b) 48 hrs

 c) 72 hrs

 d) 4-5 days

81. Q) Suture size for femoral artery anastomosis  is

 

 a) 2-O monofilament

 b) 4-O monofilament

 c) 6-O monofilament

 d) 10-O monofilament

82. Q) False regarding ascariasis

 

 

 a) It is the commonest intestinal nematode affecting humans

 b) Barium meal and follow-through will show worms scattered in the small bowel

 c) Surgery should be the 1st line of treatment if it causes intestinal obstruction

 d) Conservative management with anti-helminthic is the first line of treatment

83. Q) Type IIIc Nyhus hernia is

 

 

 a) Direct inguinal hernia

 b) Indirect inguinal

 c) Femoral hernia

 d) Umbilical hernia

84. Q) First Ileostomy was done by

 a) Littre

 b) Baum

 c) Maydl

 d) Billroth

85. Q) Following is not an antipseudomonal

 

 

 

 a) Polymyxins

 b) Cefepime

 c) Ceftazidime

 d) Daptomycin

86. Q) Supermicrosurgery False is

 a) Allows anastomosis of smaller caliber vessels and microvascular dissection of vessels ranging from 0.8 to 1.6 mm in diameter

 b) Free perforator to-perforator flaps using suprafascial vessels can be transferred more quickly

 Uses 12-O sutures

 d) All the above

87. Q) Least common type of Esophageal atresia among the following

 a) Type A

 b) Type B

 c) Type C

 d) Type d

88. Q) True about Splenic artery aneurysm

 

 a) More common in males

 b) They are multiple

 c) Most of them present with pain abdomen

 d) In elderly asymptomatic patients, no intervention is required

89. Q) Not a risk factor of thromoembolism after surgery

 a) BMI more than 25

 b) Age more than 60

 c) Varicose vein with phlebitis

 d) Family history of Protein C, Protein S deficiency

90. Q) Which of the following is not a nutritional consequence of gastrectomy

 a) Anemia

 b) Bone diseases

 c) Deficiency of vit B1, B2 because of decreased absorbtion

 d) Weight loss

91. Q) True about pancreas divisum is 

 Dorsal pancreatic duct becomes the main pancreatic duct and drains through minor papilla

 In almost all patients it leads to pancreatitis

 It occurs due to failure of complete rotation of ventral pancreatic bud during development

 It occurs in association with Down’s syndrome in most of the cases

92. Q) Least common feature in appendictis is

 a) Poorly localised abdominal colic

 b) Temp > 100

 c) Anorexia

 d) Nausea

93. Q) Not associated with myelomeningocele

 a) compulsory Hydrocephalus

 b) compulsory Chiari II malformation

 c) compulsory Incontinence

 d) Compulsory MIdline dorsal spinal mass

94. Q) Ischemia Reperfusion injury does not lead to

 Renal dysfunction

 Cardiac dysfunction

 Lung damage

 Neurologic damage

95. Q) Not true about the principles of Harmonic scalpel?

 a) It cuts tissues and seals them

 b) It causes protein denaturation

 c) Harmonic scalpel can coagulate only as it cuts

 d) All vessels more than 10 mm are easily coagulated

96. Q) Best prognosis in carcinoma gall bladder is seen in which pathological variant?

 Nodular

 Papillary

 Infiltrative

 combined

97. Q) Smoking reduces wound healing by all the ways except

 Peripheral vasodilatation

 Elevates level of carbon monoxide

 Inhibits endothelial cells and fibroblast function

 Inhibits platelet prostacyclins

98. Quadruple therapy in acute rejection includes

 

 a. Polyclonal AB followed by calcineurin blocker + anti-proliferative agent + steroid

 b. Steroid followed by calcineurin blocker + polyclonal AB + anti-proliferative agent

 c. Polyclonal AB followed by calcineurin blocker + mTOR inhibitors + steroid

 d. None of the above

99. 1.Accentuation of breath and cardiac sounds through abdominal wall seen in ruptured abdominal viscus is termed as

 a) Claybrook sign

 B) Cruveilhier sign

 C) Chandelier sign

 D) Carnett sign

100. 1.Accentuation of breath and cardiac sounds through abdominal wall seen in ruptured abdominal viscus is termed as

 a) Claybrook sign

 B) Cruveilhier sign

 C) Chandelier sign

 D) Carnett sign

101. Indications for Surgery in Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage are all except

 A. Hemodynamic instability despite vigorous resuscitation (>3-unit transfusion)

 Failure of endoscopic techniques to arrest hemorrhage

 Recurrent bleed after initial stabilization ( two trials at obtaining endoscopic hemostasis)

 Continued slow bleeding with a transfusion requirement exceeding 3 units/day

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