Surgery MCQs for MCH – NEET SS

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INI SS GI Surgery Questions
 

Surgery MCQs | mcqsurgery.com

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GCS Intubated patient

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Multiple MCQs Example | mcqsurgery.com
Q1) What is the maximum possible GCS score for an intubated patient?
Show Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: c) 11T

🔍 Explanation: In intubated patients, verbal cannot be assessed (T). Max score = Eye 4 + Motor 6 = 10, written as 11T. Explanation and Teaching Points: Intubated patients cannot be assessed for the verbal response, which is replaced by “T”. The verbal component (maximum 5) is omitted, so the best total becomes Eye (4) + Motor (6) = 10, and the notation “T” is added, making it 11T. Regular reassessment (every 30 minutes) is crucial to detect changes in neurological status.

EUS in carcinoma esophagus

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Esophageal Wall Layers EUS MCQ | mcqsurgery.com
Q) A 60-year-old patient undergoes EUS for staging of an early esophageal tumor. Regarding the echogenic layers of the esophageal wall, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
✅ Answer: c) The fourth hyperechoic layer represents the muscularis propria (incorrect — the fourth layer is hypoechoic and corresponds to muscularis propria).

🔍 Explanation:
EUS shows 5 layers of the esophageal wall:
  • 1. Hyperechoic – superficial mucosa/water interface
  • 2. Hypoechoic – deep mucosa
  • 3. Hyperechoic – submucosa
  • 4. Hypoechoic – muscularis propria
  • 5. Hyperechoic – adventitia
Correct identification is critical for T-staging of esophageal cancer. Misidentifying layer 4 may lead to incorrect staging and management errors. Radial echoendoscopes provide optimal visualization of all layers.
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Post gastrectomy management

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Q) A 60-year-old woman presents with chronic postprandial epigastric pain, nausea, and bilious vomiting. She had a Billroth II gastrectomy 8 years ago. Despite medical therapy with proton pump inhibitors, sucralfate, and cholestyramine, her symptoms persist. Endoscopy and biopsy confirm ongoing bile reflux gastritis with reactive gastropathy. She is nutritionally declining and has poor quality of life.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of cholestyramine
B. Add prokinetic therapy (e.g., metoclopramide)
C. Perform total gastrectomy with esophagojejunostomy
D. Convert Billroth II to a Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy
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Shock

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Q) A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motorbike accident. He is conscious but reports inability to move his lower limbs. On examination his blood pressure is 75/40 mmHg, pulse 48/min, skin warm and dry. There is flaccid paralysis of both lower limbs and decreased sensation below the level of the umbilicus. Jugular venous pressure is low.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hypovolemic shock due to occult intra-abdominal bleed
B. Neurogenic shock due to spinal cord injury
C. Cardiogenic shock due to blunt cardiac contusion
D. Septic shock due to aspiration pneumonia
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Retinoblastoma

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Q) Retinoblastoma, the most common ocular malignancy of childhood, has the following features. Which statement is TRUE?

a) It is always unilateral and sporadic
b) Bilateral disease occurs in about one-third of cases
c) It is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion
d) It is caused by mutation of the p53 gene on chromosome 17

Esophagectomy Chyle leak

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Premium MCQ - Chylothorax Management after Esophagectomy
Q) A 66-year-old male undergoes TTE. After esophagectomy, ICD output is 1000 ml chyle on 5th postoperative day. What should be the next step in management?
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Body response to Trauma

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Q) A 28-year-old male is brought to the ED after a road traffic accident with polytrauma. He undergoes emergency laparotomy for splenic injury. On postoperative day 1, he develops fever (38.7°C), tachycardia (120/min), leukocytosis (18,000/µL), and hypotension requiring fluids. Blood and urine cultures are negative. No evidence of pneumonia is seen on chest X-ray.

Which of the following best explains his condition?
✅ Answer: B. Sterile systemic inflammatory response due to DAMP release

🔍 Explanation:
Trauma and major surgery cause tissue necrosis, ischemia, and cellular injury. Intracellular molecules such as HMGB1, mitochondrial DNA, ATP, uric acid, and heat shock proteins are released and act as DAMPs (damage-associated molecular patterns).

These activate innate immune receptors like Toll-like receptors and inflammasomes (e.g., NLRP3), triggering a robust inflammatory response even in the absence of infection. This explains sterile SIRS, which can mimic sepsis but with negative cultures.

🧠 Key Point: DAMP-driven sterile inflammation is common after trauma, burns, pancreatitis, and ischemia-reperfusion injuries. It must be differentiated from infection-driven SIRS (PAMP-mediated sepsis).
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IPMN Pancreas

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Premium MCQ - IPMN Histology
Q) Which of the following histological varieties of IPMN is associated with low grade dysplasia?
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MEN 1 (click the topic to see answer)

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Premium MCQ - MEN1 Syndrome
Q) A 32-year-old woman presents with fatigue and kidney stones. Labs show:
- Serum calcium: 11.6 mg/dL (elevated)
- PTH: inappropriately elevated
- Serum prolactin: normal
- Fasting glucose: elevated, HbA1c: 7.2%
Her brother had a gastrinoma and hyperparathyroidism in his 30s.
A MEN1 mutation is detected on genetic testing.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?
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